[ECOWORLD] | ESRS G1-2 Procurement Sustainability Training
Quiz Bank — All Modules
120 Questions | 10 per Module | LearnWorlds Import Format
Instructions for LearnWorlds import: Each question block follows the format: Question → Options (A–D) → Correct answer → Explanation. Import via LearnWorlds Quiz Builder or use the CSV import template. All questions are single-choice unless marked [MULTI].
MODULE 1.1 — The Regulatory Landscape
Q1. What does CSRD stand for?
- A) Corporate Sustainability Reporting Directive ✓
- B) Corporate Social Responsibility Declaration
- C) Carbon Sustainability Reporting Directive
- D) Consumer Sustainability Regulatory Directive
Explanation: The Corporate Sustainability Reporting Directive (CSRD) is the EU legislation requiring large companies to report on sustainability matters using European Sustainability Reporting Standards (ESRS).
Q2. Under the Amended ESRS (November 2025), training of the procurement team on sustainability is:
- A) A voluntary best practice
- B) Recommended but not required
- C) A mandatory disclosure datapoint under G1-2 ✓
- D) Only required for listed companies
Explanation: Under the Amended ESRS, procurement team training on sustainability criteria is explicitly a mandatory datapoint under ESRS G1-2 Supplier Relationships.
Q3. Which three international frameworks are referenced throughout ESRS S1, S2, S3, S4, and G1?
- A) GRI, SASB, and TCFD
- B) UNGPs, ILO Declaration, and OECD Guidelines ✓
- C) ISO 14001, SA8000, and EcoVadis
- D) Paris Agreement, UN SDGs, and Kyoto Protocol
Explanation: The UN Guiding Principles on Business and Human Rights (UNGPs), the ILO Declaration on Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work, and the OECD Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises are the three core frameworks embedded in ESRS social and governance standards.
Q4. The Omnibus I simplification package reduced the CSRD reporting scope by approximately:
- A) 20%
- B) 50%
- C) 70%
- D) 90% ✓
Explanation: The Omnibus I simplification package reduced the overall CSRD scope by approximately 90%, introducing new thresholds of 1,000 employees and €450M annual turnover.
Q5. Under the Amended ESRS, when are Wave 1 companies expected to switch to the revised ESRS standards?
- A) Financial year 2025
- B) Financial year 2026
- C) Financial year 2027 ✓
- D) Financial year 2030
Explanation: The Amended ESRS are expected to apply from FY2027, with voluntary early adoption possible from FY2026. Wave 1 companies continue reporting under the original ESRS for FY2024–2026.
Q6. What is the primary purpose of ESRS G1 as a whole?
- A) To set greenhouse gas emissions targets
- B) To establish ethical business conduct reporting requirements ✓
- C) To regulate financial disclosures only
- D) To define biodiversity impact metrics
Explanation: ESRS G1 – Business Conduct covers ethical practices including anti-corruption, supplier conduct, political engagement, and payment practices.
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a mandatory disclosure under ESRS G1-2?
- A) Description of how sustainability criteria are integrated into supplier selection
- B) Confirmation that procurement teams have been trained
- C) The names and locations of all Tier 1 suppliers ✓
- D) Actions taken against non-compliant suppliers
Explanation: ESRS G1-2 requires description of processes, training confirmation, and actions — but does not mandate disclosure of individual supplier names and locations.
Q8. The CSDDD (Corporate Sustainability Due Diligence Directive) is relevant to procurement because:
- A) It replaces CSRD entirely
- B) It creates legal liability for adverse impacts in supply chains ✓
- C) It only applies to financial institutions
- D) It exempts companies under 5,000 employees from all due diligence
Explanation: The CSDDD creates a legal duty of care for companies to identify and address adverse human rights and environmental impacts throughout their value chains, making supplier due diligence legally critical.
Q9. ESG ratings agencies such as MSCI and Sustainalytics increasingly assess supplier management because:
- A) It is required by EU financial regulation
- B) Supply chain risks represent a significant source of unmanaged ESG exposure ✓
- C) Supplier data is easier to verify than direct operations data
- D) It is the only area where companies can improve their scores
Explanation: Investor expectations have shifted to include supply chain ESG performance as a material risk factor, meaning poor supplier management can directly affect a company's ESG rating and cost of capital.
Q10. The "Stop-the-Clock" mechanism approved in 2025:
- A) Suspended all CSRD requirements indefinitely
- B) Delayed Wave 2 and Wave 3 CSRD reporting by two years ✓
- C) Delayed Wave 1 companies' reporting obligations
- D) Eliminated sector-specific ESRS standards permanently
Explanation: The Stop-the-Clock directive delayed the entry into application of CSRD for Wave 2 (large non-listed companies) and Wave 3 (non-EU companies) by two years, but did not affect Wave 1 companies.
MODULE 1.2 — Double Materiality in Supply Chains
Q11. Double materiality in ESRS means:
- A) Reporting on financial performance and market share
- B) Assessing both the company's impact on people/environment AND how ESG issues affect the company financially ✓
- C) Reporting from two different accounting perspectives
- D) Submitting two separate sustainability reports
Explanation: Double materiality requires companies to assess impact materiality (how they affect the world) and financial materiality (how the world affects them), both of which can be triggered by supply chain relationships.
Q12. In the context of supply chains, which of the following is an example of IMPACT materiality?
- A) A supplier's bankruptcy affecting company revenues
- B) Water scarcity in a supplier's region increasing input costs
- C) A supplier's factory discharging untreated wastewater into a river ✓
- D) A supplier's currency exposure affecting pricing
Explanation: Impact materiality refers to the company's actual or potential impacts on people and the environment — a supplier discharging wastewater is a negative environmental impact linked to the company's value chain.
Q13. Which abbreviation refers to Impacts, Risks and Opportunities in ESRS?
- A) IRM
- B) IRO ✓
- C) ESG
- D) DMA
Explanation: IRO stands for Impacts, Risks and Opportunities — the core concept that companies must assess and disclose throughout their sustainability statements.
Q14. "Salient human rights issues" in supply chains refers to:
- A) Issues that are most severe and most likely to occur ✓
- B) Issues that have already occurred and been reported
- C) Issues flagged by governments only
- D) Issues limited to Tier 1 suppliers
Explanation: Salient human rights issues are those at risk of the most severe negative impacts, either through the company's own activities or through its business relationships, following UNGPs guidance.
Q15. Forced labour risk is most commonly associated with which supply chain sectors?
- A) Software development and IT services
- B) Legal services and consulting
- C) Agriculture, textiles, electronics, and mining ✓
- D) Insurance and financial services
Explanation: Forced labour risk is highest in labour-intensive sectors with complex global supply chains, particularly agriculture, garment/textiles, electronics manufacturing, and extractive industries.
Q16. Environmental risks from suppliers that could become financially material include:
- A) Supplier's marketing spend and advertising choices
- B) Regulatory fines for supplier pollution creating supply disruption ✓
- C) Supplier's internal HR policies
- D) Supplier's office rental costs
Explanation: Environmental compliance failures by suppliers can trigger regulatory action, production shutdowns, or reputational damage that creates direct financial risk for the purchasing company.
Q17. The DMA process in ESRS stands for:
- A) Due Materiality Assessment
- B) Double Materiality Assessment ✓
- C) Dual Management Approach
- D) Disclosure and Monitoring Analysis
Explanation: The Double Materiality Assessment (DMA) is the process by which companies identify which sustainability topics are material — either because of their impacts or their financial risks — and therefore require disclosure.
Q18. Beyond Tier 1 supplier risks are important because:
- A) They are always more severe than Tier 1 risks
- B) ESRS requires equal scrutiny at all tiers
- C) Severe human rights impacts often occur deeper in the supply chain where visibility is lowest ✓
- D) Tier 1 suppliers are exempt from sustainability requirements
Explanation: Many of the most severe supply chain impacts — child labour, forced labour, deforestation — occur at raw material extraction and processing levels, often Tier 2, 3, or beyond.
Q19. An IRO matrix is used to:
- A) Calculate a company's carbon footprint
- B) Score and prioritise impacts, risks and opportunities by severity and likelihood ✓
- C) Report financial results to investors
- D) Track supplier payment terms
Explanation: An IRO matrix helps procurement teams systematically assess which supplier-related sustainability topics are most material, enabling proportionate due diligence effort.
Q20. Under the Amended ESRS, the Double Materiality Assessment has been:
- A) Made mandatory for all companies regardless of size
- B) Replaced with financial materiality only (aligned to ISSB)
- C) Streamlined with a top-down approach and clearer methodology ✓
- D) Removed from the reporting requirements
Explanation: The Amended ESRS simplified the DMA process by introducing a top-down approach, clearer methodologies, and a non-binding topic list — making it more manageable while keeping double materiality central.
MODULE 1.3 — OECD 6-Step Due Diligence
Q21. The OECD 6-step due diligence framework begins with:
- A) Identifying adverse impacts
- B) Embedding responsible business conduct into policies and management systems ✓
- C) Communicating how impacts are addressed
- D) Providing remediation
Explanation: Step 1 of the OECD framework is embedding RBC into policies and management systems — without this foundation, the remaining steps lack governance backing.
Q22. Step 3 of the OECD due diligence framework requires companies to:
- A) Track implementation and results
- B) Identify and assess adverse impacts
- C) Cease, prevent or mitigate adverse impacts ✓
- D) Communicate how impacts are addressed
Explanation: Step 3 moves from assessment to action — companies must cease activities causing harm, prevent potential harm, or mitigate harm they cannot fully prevent.
Q23. The OECD Guidelines define "business relationships" as:
- A) Relationships with direct (Tier 1) suppliers only
- B) Relationships with any entity linked to the company's operations, products, or services ✓
- C) Relationships with government regulators only
- D) Relationships with shareholders and investors
Explanation: The OECD Guidelines broadly define business relationships to include suppliers, sub-contractors, franchisees, joint venture partners, and other entities linked to operations — not just Tier 1.
Q24. The 2023 update to the OECD Guidelines expanded due diligence requirements to include:
- A) Only human rights and labour rights
- B) Technology and data, climate change, biodiversity, and all forms of corruption ✓
- C) Financial reporting and tax compliance only
- D) Competition law and antitrust matters
Explanation: The 2023 update significantly expanded the Guidelines to include technology/data due diligence, recommendations on climate and biodiversity alignment, and expanded corruption coverage.
Q25. "Leverage" in the context of OECD due diligence refers to:
- A) Financial debt ratios
- B) A company's ability to influence a supplier's practices to prevent or remedy harm ✓
- C) The volume of purchases from a supplier
- D) Legal enforcement actions against suppliers
Explanation: The OECD Guidelines emphasise that companies should use their leverage — purchasing power, contractual terms, engagement — to influence suppliers toward better practices.
Q26. Step 5 of the OECD 6-step framework requires companies to:
- A) Identify adverse impacts
- B) Embed RBC into policies
- C) Provide remediation
- D) Communicate how impacts are addressed ✓
Explanation: Step 5 is communication — companies must disclose to affected stakeholders and the public how they are addressing adverse impacts identified through their due diligence.
Q27. The OECD Due Diligence Guidance for Responsible Business Conduct (2018) is relevant to ESRS because:
- A) It replaces ESRS reporting requirements
- B) It provides the six-step framework that underpins ESRS G1-2 and social standards ✓
- C) It only applies to financial institutions
- D) It is a legally binding regulation in the EU
Explanation: The 2018 OECD RBC Due Diligence Guidance provides the practical methodology — including the six steps — that EFRAG references when structuring G1-2 and S1–S4 disclosure requirements.
Q28. Which two chapters of the OECD Guidelines are EXEMPT from the due diligence requirement?
- A) Human rights and labour
- B) Environment and consumer interests
- C) Competition and taxation ✓
- D) Technology and bribery
Explanation: The OECD Guidelines explicitly exempt competition and taxation chapters from the risk-based due diligence requirement, as these operate under separate legal frameworks.
Q29. The OECD Guidelines state that due diligence should be:
- A) Identical for all suppliers regardless of risk level
- B) Risk-based, meaning proportionate to the degree and nature of the risk ✓
- C) Limited to a company's direct manufacturing operations
- D) Conducted by external auditors only
Explanation: Risk-based due diligence means effort is directed where adverse impacts are most likely to be most significant — not applied uniformly, but proportionately.
Q30. Step 6 of the OECD framework requires companies to:
- A) Cease all activities with non-compliant suppliers
- B) Provide for or cooperate in remediation when appropriate ✓
- C) Report to government regulators
- D) Suspend supplier contracts pending investigation
Explanation: Step 6 recognises that even where companies have not caused harm directly, they may need to support or cooperate in remediation processes for affected stakeholders.
MODULE 2.1 — Sustainability Criteria in Supplier Selection
Q31. An RFP is:
- A) A Risk and Performance Profile
- B) A Request for Proposal — a document inviting suppliers to bid ✓
- C) A Regulatory Filing Procedure
- D) A Reporting Framework Protocol
Explanation: RFP (Request for Proposal) is a procurement document used to solicit bids from potential suppliers, into which ESG criteria should be systematically embedded.
Q32. EcoVadis is best described as:
- A) A government sustainability regulator
- B) A third-party supplier sustainability rating and assessment platform ✓
- C) An EU reporting standard
- D) An audit scheme for food safety
Explanation: EcoVadis provides standardised sustainability scorecards for companies, widely used to benchmark supplier ESG performance across environment, labour, ethics, and procurement.
Q33. ISO 14001 is a certification related to:
- A) Occupational health and safety management
- B) Quality management systems
- C) Environmental management systems ✓
- D) Information security management
Explanation: ISO 14001 certifies that an organisation has an effective environmental management system in place, and is one of the key certifications to assess in supplier environmental criteria.
Q34. In sustainable procurement, "supplier self-disclosure" means:
- A) A supplier reports their own sustainability data via questionnaire ✓
- B) A third-party auditor inspects the supplier's operations
- C) The purchasing company audits the supplier directly
- D) A government body verifies the supplier's claims
Explanation: Self-disclosure is the lowest-intensity form of supplier sustainability assessment — the supplier completes a questionnaire. It should be supplemented with verification for higher-risk suppliers.
Q35. When weighting criteria in a supplier tender evaluation, sustainability should:
- A) Always be the single most important criterion
- B) Never affect the outcome if the supplier has the lowest price
- C) Be appropriately weighted alongside price, quality, and delivery — proportionate to the risk profile ✓
- D) Only be considered for contracts above €10 million
Explanation: Best practice — and OECD proportionality principle — suggests sustainability weighting should reflect the risk level of the category, not apply a fixed universal weight.
Q36. Which of the following is a key social criterion to assess in supplier pre-qualification?
- A) The supplier's marketing budget
- B) The supplier's health and safety record and lost-time injury rate ✓
- C) The supplier's office location
- D) The number of social media followers the supplier has
Explanation: Health and safety performance is a core social criterion, directly linked to ILO Conventions 155 and 187, and should be assessed during supplier pre-qualification.
Q37. "Living wage" in supplier assessment refers to:
- A) The minimum wage set by national law
- B) A wage sufficient to meet basic needs including food, housing, education, and a small surplus ✓
- C) A wage paid to workers on living expenses claims
- D) Any wage above the industry average
Explanation: A living wage is higher than the legal minimum wage and reflects what is needed for dignified living. It is referenced in ESRS S1-8 (adequate wages) and is increasingly expected from suppliers.
Q38. Which governance criterion is most critical to assess in supplier pre-qualification given ESRS G1-2 requirements?
- A) The supplier's office décor policy
- B) The supplier's anti-corruption policies and whistleblower protection ✓
- C) The supplier's investment in marketing technology
- D) The supplier's staff parking arrangements
Explanation: Anti-corruption policies and whistleblower protection directly reflect OECD Guidelines Chapter VII and ESRS G1-3 requirements, and are among the highest-priority governance criteria.
Q39. CDP score in a supplier sustainability assessment refers to:
- A) A supplier's Customer Data Protection score
- B) A supplier's disclosure score on the Carbon Disclosure Project platform ✓
- C) A Certified Distribution Partnership certification
- D) A Community Development Programme rating
Explanation: CDP (formerly Carbon Disclosure Project) is a global platform where companies disclose environmental data. A supplier's CDP score indicates the quality and completeness of their environmental disclosures.
Q40. The supplier sustainability questionnaire should be refreshed:
- A) Only when a new contract is signed
- B) Every five years
- C) Annually as a minimum, more frequently for high-risk suppliers ✓
- D) Only after an incident occurs
Explanation: Annual refresh of sustainability questionnaires ensures that the purchasing company holds current information and can track improvement or deterioration in supplier performance over time.
MODULE 2.2 — Human Rights in Supplier Contracts
Q41. Which ILO conventions should be explicitly referenced in supplier contract human rights clauses?
- A) Only ILO Convention 87 (Freedom of Association)
- B) All ten core ILO conventions covering forced labour, child labour, discrimination, freedom of association, and health & safety ✓
- C) Only the conventions ratified by the supplier's home country
- D) ILO conventions are not relevant to commercial contracts
Explanation: Best practice supplier contracts reference all ten core ILO conventions to create contractual obligations covering the full range of fundamental labour rights.
Q42. "Cascade obligations" in supplier contracts means:
- A) The supplier must cascade pricing discounts to sub-suppliers
- B) The supplier must pass through equivalent sustainability requirements to their own sub-suppliers ✓
- C) The buying company audits all tiers simultaneously
- D) Requirements apply only when the supplier has more than 500 employees
Explanation: Cascade obligations ensure that sustainability standards flow down the supply chain beyond Tier 1, addressing the OECD and ESRS expectation that companies manage beyond-Tier-1 risks.
Q43. A "right to audit" clause in a supplier contract gives the purchasing company:
- A) The right to access the supplier's financial accounts at any time
- B) The right to conduct or commission sustainability and compliance audits of the supplier ✓
- C) The right to terminate the contract without notice
- D) The right to set the supplier's internal HR policies
Explanation: A right-to-audit clause is essential for supply chain due diligence, allowing the buying company to verify supplier claims and conduct corrective action verification.
Q44. A "cure period" in a supplier contract refers to:
- A) A health and safety grace period for new employees
- B) A defined timeframe given to a supplier to remediate a non-conformance before escalation or termination ✓
- C) A period during which pricing cannot be changed
- D) A probationary period for new supplier relationships
Explanation: A cure period gives suppliers reasonable time to correct identified issues — typically 30–90 days depending on severity — before the buying company escalates to contract suspension or termination.
Q45. Which ILO convention covers freedom of association — the right to form and join trade unions?
- A) Convention No. 29
- B) Convention No. 87 ✓
- C) Convention No. 100
- D) Convention No. 138
Explanation: ILO Convention No. 87 (Freedom of Association and Protection of the Right to Organise, 1948) is the foundational convention on workers' right to form and join trade unions.
Q46. ILO Convention No. 182 concerns:
- A) Equal remuneration for men and women
- B) Occupational health and safety
- C) The worst forms of child labour ✓
- D) Freedom of association
Explanation: ILO Convention No. 182 (Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999) requires immediate action to eliminate the worst forms of child labour including slavery, trafficking, debt bondage, and hazardous work.
Q47. Under OECD Guidelines, when a supplier is found to be non-compliant with human rights standards, the buying company should first:
- A) Immediately terminate the contract
- B) Seek to use leverage to influence the supplier to remediate, escalating to exit only if necessary ✓
- C) Report the supplier to government authorities
- D) Reduce the contract value as a financial penalty
Explanation: The OECD Guidelines emphasise a proportionate, engagement-first approach — working with suppliers to remediate issues before considering exit, as termination can sometimes worsen conditions for affected workers.
Q48. Anti-bribery contract clauses should reference which international standard?
- A) ISO 9001
- B) The UN Convention Against Corruption (UNCAC) and OECD Anti-Bribery Convention ✓
- C) The ILO Forced Labour Convention
- D) The Paris Agreement
Explanation: Anti-bribery clauses typically reference the UNCAC, the OECD Anti-Bribery Convention, and (in the EU context) national implementations such as the UK Bribery Act or German Supply Chain Act.
Q49. The principle of "proportionality" in applying contractual leverage means:
- A) Applying identical contract clauses to all suppliers regardless of size
- B) Matching the intensity of requirements and enforcement to the risk level and supplier capacity ✓
- C) Requiring smaller suppliers to meet higher standards than large ones
- D) Applying more lenient standards to strategic suppliers
Explanation: The OECD Guidelines recognise that smaller suppliers may have limited capacity — proportionality means expecting progress and support, not imposing identical burdens on a micro-enterprise and a multinational.
Q50. A Supplier Code of Conduct is:
- A) A legally binding contract replacing the supplier agreement
- B) A document setting out the buying company's minimum sustainability expectations for all suppliers ✓
- C) An internal document for the buying company's own staff only
- D) A certification issued by a third-party auditor
Explanation: A Supplier Code of Conduct (SCoC) communicates the buying company's minimum standards on human rights, labour, environment, and ethics, and is typically incorporated by reference into supplier contracts.
MODULE 2.3 — Risk-Based Supplier Segmentation
Q51. The Transparency International Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is useful in supplier risk assessment because:
- A) It ranks countries by environmental performance
- B) It provides a country-level indicator of perceived public sector corruption ✓
- C) It certifies individual suppliers as corruption-free
- D) It is required reading under ESRS G1-4
Explanation: The CPI ranks 180 countries by perceived levels of public sector corruption, helping procurement teams identify geographic risk concentrations requiring heightened due diligence.
Q52. The ITUC Global Rights Index ranks countries by:
- A) Environmental regulation quality
- B) Quality of workers' rights protections in law and practice ✓
- C) Anti-corruption enforcement effectiveness
- D) Child labour prevalence
Explanation: The International Trade Union Confederation (ITUC) Global Rights Index assesses countries on their respect for workers' rights, from "irregular violations" (1) to "no guarantee of rights" (5+), useful for labour risk mapping.
Q53. A "Tier 1" supplier is:
- A) The highest-quality supplier in a category
- B) A supplier with direct contractual relationship with the buying company ✓
- C) A supplier based in a Tier 1 city
- D) A supplier certified to the highest sustainability standard
Explanation: Tier 1 suppliers have a direct contractual relationship with the buying company. Tier 2 suppliers supply to Tier 1, and so on — risks often increase in lower tiers where visibility is reduced.
Q54. Which combination of factors would place a supplier in the HIGHEST risk tier?
- A) Low spend, established relationship, Western Europe
- B) High spend, established relationship, low-risk sector
- C) High spend, new relationship, high-risk sector, high-risk country ✓
- D) Low spend, new relationship, low-risk sector
Explanation: Risk segmentation considers multiple factors simultaneously — spend level, relationship maturity, sector risk, and country risk. The combination of high spend, new relationship, high-risk sector and country creates maximum exposure.
Q55. SMETA is:
- A) A government-mandated sustainability reporting standard
- B) A supply chain audit methodology developed by Sedex ✓
- C) A supplier financial credit rating system
- D) An EU certification for sustainable materials
Explanation: SMETA (Sedex Members Ethical Trade Audit) is one of the world's most widely used social audit methodologies, covering labour standards, health & safety, environment, and business ethics.
Q56. For a low-risk supplier, appropriate due diligence typically includes:
- A) Annual on-site audit by a third-party auditor
- B) Continuous monitoring and real-time data feeds
- C) Desktop review and annual self-assessment questionnaire ✓
- D) Full SMETA audit every six months
Explanation: Proportionality means applying lighter-touch measures to low-risk suppliers — a desktop review of public information and an annual self-assessment questionnaire is typically sufficient.
Q57. SA8000 is a certification standard for:
- A) Environmental management systems
- B) Information security
- C) Social accountability — covering labour rights and working conditions ✓
- D) Product quality management
Explanation: SA8000 is an auditable standard developed by Social Accountability International, covering child labour, forced labour, health and safety, freedom of association, discrimination, disciplinary practices, working hours, and remuneration.
Q58. The agriculture sector is considered high-risk for supply chain sustainability primarily because of:
- A) High energy consumption in food processing
- B) Complex global supply chains with high exposure to forced labour, child labour, and environmental impacts ✓
- C) High levels of patent disputes
- D) Currency exchange risks in international trade
Explanation: Agriculture consistently ranks among the highest-risk sectors due to widespread use of seasonal migrant labour, sub-contracting complexity, land rights issues, water use, and deforestation risks.
Q59. Beyond-Tier-1 due diligence is particularly challenging because:
- A) It is explicitly prohibited under ESRS
- B) Companies have no contractual relationship with Tier 2+ suppliers and limited visibility ✓
- C) Tier 2+ suppliers are always exempt from sustainability requirements
- D) It requires government approval before any audit can be conducted
Explanation: Companies typically have no direct contractual relationship with sub-suppliers, making information collection harder — requiring engagement through Tier 1 contracts, industry coalitions, and traceability tools.
Q60. Risk segmentation should be reviewed:
- A) Only when a new supplier is onboarded
- B) Annually, and immediately following a significant incident or change in supplier circumstances ✓
- C) Every five years as part of strategic procurement review
- D) Only when regulators request it
Explanation: Risk profiles change — a supplier's country risk can worsen, their financial situation may deteriorate, or new information may emerge. Annual review plus event-triggered re-assessment maintains current risk intelligence.
MODULE 2.4 — Supplier Engagement & Capacity Building
Q61. Free, Prior and Informed Consent (FPIC) is primarily relevant when:
- A) Engaging with large multinational suppliers on contract terms
- B) Operations or supply chains affect the lands or rights of Indigenous peoples ✓
- C) Conducting financial audits of suppliers
- D) Setting up joint ventures with competitors
Explanation: FPIC is a right of Indigenous peoples under the UN Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples and ILO Convention 169, requiring consent before projects affecting their lands or resources.
Q62. The "partnership model" in supplier engagement means:
- A) Creating a formal joint venture with every supplier
- B) Working collaboratively with suppliers to build sustainability capacity rather than only using punitive measures ✓
- C) Sharing financial profits with suppliers
- D) Allowing suppliers to set their own sustainability standards
Explanation: A partnership approach recognises that compliance improves faster through collaborative engagement, training support, and joint improvement plans than through threats of termination alone.
Q63. A Supplier Code of Conduct should cover as a minimum:
- A) The supplier's marketing strategy and pricing policy
- B) Human rights, labour standards, environmental responsibilities, and anti-corruption ✓
- C) Product specifications and technical requirements
- D) Payment terms and invoicing procedures
Explanation: A comprehensive Supplier Code of Conduct covers the four pillars of responsible business conduct: human rights/labour, environment, ethics/anti-corruption, and governance — reflecting all relevant international frameworks.
Q64. A grievance mechanism for supply chain workers (relevant to ESRS S2-2) should be:
- A) Available only to employees of the buying company
- B) Accessible to workers at supplier sites, in local languages, with protection against retaliation ✓
- C) Managed exclusively by trade unions
- D) Only activated after a formal complaint to government authorities
Explanation: Effective grievance mechanisms must be accessible to those affected — including supplier workers — and must provide protection from retaliation, as required by the UNGPs and ESRS S2-2.
Q65. Capacity building support for smaller suppliers might include:
- A) Taking over the management of the supplier's operations
- B) Providing access to sustainability training resources, tools, and shared audit schemes ✓
- C) Requiring smaller suppliers to meet identical standards to multinational suppliers immediately
- D) Eliminating sustainability requirements for SME suppliers entirely
Explanation: The OECD Guidelines recognise that SMEs have limited capacity — buying companies are encouraged to support smaller suppliers through training, tools, and proportionate expectations.
Q66. Which ESRS standard is most directly linked to supplier engagement on affected communities?
- A) ESRS E1 (Climate Change)
- B) ESRS E4 (Biodiversity)
- C) ESRS S3 (Affected Communities) ✓
- D) ESRS G1 (Business Conduct)
Explanation: ESRS S3 addresses impacts on communities linked to the company's operations or value chain, including requirements for engagement with affected communities, grievance mechanisms, and FPIC for Indigenous peoples.
Q67. Communicating sustainability expectations to suppliers should include:
- A) A verbal summary during commercial negotiations only
- B) Written policies, codes of conduct, contractual requirements, and training materials — in accessible language ✓
- C) Confidential internal policies not shared with suppliers
- D) Generic corporate brochures without specific requirements
Explanation: Effective communication of sustainability expectations requires written, specific, accessible documentation — not just verbal communication — to create accountability and form the basis for monitoring and audit.
Q68. Supplier joint improvement plans are used when:
- A) A supplier has already achieved full compliance
- B) A supplier has identified gaps but shows willingness to improve ✓
- C) A supplier relationship is being terminated
- D) A supplier has been found to have committed fraud
Explanation: Joint improvement plans (JIPs) are collaborative documents agreed between buyer and supplier to address identified gaps against sustainability requirements over a defined timeframe.
Q69. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective grievance mechanism under the UNGPs?
- A) Legitimate — acceptable to intended users
- B) Predictable — clear process with defined timeframes
- C) Confidential — kept entirely secret from affected parties ✓
- D) Equitable — ensuring affected parties have access to information
Explanation: The UNGPs identify effectiveness criteria for grievance mechanisms including legitimacy, accessibility, predictability, equitability, transparency, rights-compatibility, and a source of continuous learning. Secrecy conflicts with transparency and equitability.
Q70. Supplier capacity building is an investment because:
- A) It allows buying companies to charge suppliers for training
- B) It improves data quality, reduces audit findings, and builds more resilient supply chains over time ✓
- C) It transfers legal liability to the supplier entirely
- D) It reduces the need for any further due diligence
Explanation: Investing in supplier capability pays dividends in better ESG data, fewer non-conformances, stronger relationships, and more resilient supply chains — all of which reduce long-term risk and cost.
MODULE 3.1 — Tracking, Auditing & Corrective Action
Q71. A Corrective Action Plan (CAP) is:
- A) A plan to terminate a non-compliant supplier
- B) A documented agreement between buyer and supplier on how to remedy identified non-conformances ✓
- C) A financial penalty framework for supplier violations
- D) A government-mandated remediation plan
Explanation: A CAP sets out specific corrective actions, responsibilities, timelines, and verification steps to address non-conformances found during audits or assessments.
Q72. A "first-party audit" in supplier management means:
- A) An audit conducted by a government regulator
- B) An audit conducted by the buying company of the supplier ✓
- C) An audit conducted by the supplier of themselves (self-assessment)
- D) An audit conducted by an independent third party
Explanation: First-party = buying company audits supplier. Second-party = self-assessment by supplier. Third-party = independent auditor. Each has different costs, independence levels, and credibility.
Q73. How often should high-risk suppliers typically be reassessed?
- A) Once at onboarding only
- B) Every five years
- C) Annually or more frequently based on risk triggers ✓
- D) Only when a contract is renewed
Explanation: High-risk suppliers require the most frequent monitoring — annual reassessment as a minimum, with additional reviews triggered by incidents, adverse media, changes in country risk, or major operational changes.
Q74. For ESRS evidence purposes, supplier monitoring documentation should include:
- A) Supplier sales brochures and marketing materials
- B) Audit reports, corrective action logs, questionnaire responses, and training records ✓
- C) Internal financial forecasts and budget plans
- D) Legal correspondence only
Explanation: The ESRS sustainability statement must be capable of external assurance — documentation of supplier due diligence processes, findings, and corrective actions provides the audit trail required.
Q75. A Key Performance Indicator (KPI) relevant to ESRS G1-2 supplier monitoring would be:
- A) Supplier's annual revenue growth
- B) Percentage of suppliers screened against sustainability criteria ✓
- C) Supplier's market capitalisation
- D) Number of supplier invoices processed per month
Explanation: Percentage of suppliers screened against sustainability criteria is a directly relevant G1-2 KPI, demonstrating the reach and coverage of the sustainability procurement programme.
Q76. "Adverse media screening" in supplier due diligence means:
- A) Monitoring a supplier's social media advertising content
- B) Searching news and media sources for negative ESG-related reports about a supplier ✓
- C) Reviewing the supplier's press releases for marketing claims
- D) Checking whether the supplier advertises sustainably
Explanation: Adverse media screening (also called negative news screening) uses structured searches of news databases to identify reports of labour violations, environmental incidents, corruption, or other ESG issues linked to a supplier.
Q77. Sedex is:
- A) A government supply chain regulator
- B) A responsible business membership organisation and data platform for sharing supply chain assessments ✓
- C) A product certification body for sustainable materials
- D) An EU-mandated supplier registration system
Explanation: Sedex (Supplier Ethical Data Exchange) is a not-for-profit membership organisation providing a platform for sharing ethical and responsible sourcing data, including SMETA audit results.
Q78. When a critical non-conformance (e.g., forced labour found at a supplier site) is identified, the first step should be:
- A) Immediately terminate the contract and publicise the finding
- B) Escalate immediately to senior management and legal counsel, initiate an immediate corrective action process ✓
- C) Wait until the next scheduled audit to address the issue
- D) Reduce the supplier's contract value as a penalty
Explanation: Critical non-conformances require immediate escalation — not delayed response. Immediate senior management and legal involvement ensures the company takes proportionate, defensible action including worker protection.
Q79. The purpose of tracking supplier sustainability KPIs in a monitoring dashboard is:
- A) To generate data for marketing purposes
- B) To enable proactive risk management and provide evidence for ESRS disclosure ✓
- C) To automate supplier payments
- D) To set suppliers' internal targets on their behalf
Explanation: A supplier monitoring dashboard enables the procurement team to identify deteriorating performance early, take corrective action, and generate the evidence base needed for ESRS G1-2 disclosure and external assurance.
Q80. ISO 45001 certification covers:
- A) Environmental management systems
- B) Occupational health and safety management systems ✓
- C) Quality management systems
- D) Information security management systems
Explanation: ISO 45001 (Occupational Health and Safety Management Systems) certifies that an organisation has a systematic approach to managing OH&S risks — directly relevant to assessing supplier compliance with ILO Conventions 155 and 187.
MODULE 3.2 — ESRS G1-2 Disclosure Requirements
Q81. The ESRS G1-2 mandatory disclosure on procurement training requires companies to confirm:
- A) The exact curriculum content taught to procurement staff
- B) That procurement team members have received sustainability training ✓
- C) The names of all trained procurement staff
- D) That training was conducted by an external provider
Explanation: G1-2 requires confirmation that training has occurred — this is the mandatory datapoint. The specific content and delivery method are part of the supporting evidence, not the required disclosure itself.
Q82. Cross-referencing G1-2 with S2-1 in the sustainability statement is relevant because:
- A) S2-1 covers the same topic as G1-2 and should replace it
- B) S2-1 covers the human rights policy for value chain workers, complementing G1-2's supplier management disclosures ✓
- C) S2-1 is optional and need not be referenced
- D) S2-1 covers only environmental matters in the value chain
Explanation: S2-1 (Policies related to workers in the value chain) covers the human rights policy dimension that underpins supplier engagement — together with G1-2, they create a complete picture of value chain management.
Q83. What does "external assurance" of the ESRS sustainability statement mean?
- A) A marketing agency endorses the sustainability claims
- B) An independent auditor verifies the accuracy and completeness of the sustainability disclosures ✓
- C) Government regulators pre-approve the report before publication
- D) Suppliers confirm that the report accurately represents them
Explanation: External assurance (equivalent to audit for financial statements) is required under CSRD — an independent auditor reviews the sustainability statement to provide limited or reasonable assurance of its accuracy.
Q84. A well-written G1-2 narrative disclosure should include:
- A) A general statement that the company "is committed to sustainability"
- B) Specific description of how ESG criteria are integrated into selection, confirmation of training, and actions taken against non-compliant suppliers ✓
- C) A list of all suppliers by country and spend level
- D) The company's financial sustainability targets only
Explanation: G1-2 disclosure must be specific and evidenceable — generic commitments without specific process descriptions will not satisfy the ESRS disclosure objective or withstand external assurance.
Q85. Under ESRS 2 IRO-1, supplier-related material IROs must be:
- A) Disclosed only if a supplier incident has already occurred
- B) Identified through the Double Materiality Assessment and disclosed if material ✓
- C) Reported only to government regulators, not in the public statement
- D) Assessed by suppliers themselves and submitted to the company
Explanation: ESRS 2 IRO-1 requires disclosure of processes to identify and assess material IROs — including those arising from supplier relationships — providing the framework within which G1-2 sits.
Q86. The number of suppliers screened against sustainability criteria should be expressed as:
- A) An absolute number only
- B) Both absolute number and as a percentage of total supplier base ✓
- C) A qualitative description only (e.g., "most suppliers")
- D) This metric is not required under ESRS G1-2
Explanation: Best practice disclosure — and the direction of ESRS guidance — is to provide both the absolute figure and the proportional coverage, enabling stakeholders to assess the breadth of the programme.
Q87. Which ESRS standard requires disclosure of grievance mechanisms accessible to supply chain workers?
- A) ESRS E2 (Pollution)
- B) ESRS G1-3 (Anti-corruption)
- C) ESRS S2-2 (Workers in the value chain — engagement and remedy channels) ✓
- D) ESRS E5 (Resource use)
Explanation: S2-2 requires disclosure of processes for engaging with value chain workers and the existence of channels for raising concerns — these grievance mechanisms are directly linked to effective supplier sustainability management.
Q88. When drafting a G1-2 narrative for an ESRS sustainability statement, the tone should be:
- A) Aspirational and future-focused only, without current-state disclosure
- B) Factual, specific, and evidenceable — describing what is actually in place ✓
- C) Promotional, highlighting only positive achievements
- D) Technical, using legal language accessible only to specialists
Explanation: ESRS disclosures must enable users to make informed assessments — this requires factual, specific, and verifiable language, not aspirational marketing language.
Q89. A company that has NO sustainability criteria in its supplier selection process must under ESRS G1-2:
- A) Not disclose this, as it creates reputational risk
- B) Disclose this fact and explain its approach ✓
- C) Be exempt from G1-2 disclosure entirely
- D) Use estimated data from industry peers instead
Explanation: ESRS requires fair presentation — including disclosure of gaps and limitations. A company without sustainability criteria in supplier selection must disclose this; the disclosure cannot simply be omitted.
Q90. The audit trail maintained for G1-2 evidence should be retained for how long?
- A) Six months
- B) One year
- C) At least as long as required by the applicable statute of limitations and audit requirements — typically 5–10 years ✓
- D) Evidence does not need to be retained after disclosure
Explanation: CSRD requires external assurance, and companies may be subject to regulatory investigation. Retaining sustainability evidence for 5–10 years aligns with financial reporting record-keeping standards.
MODULE 3.3 — Ethics, Anti-Corruption & Political Engagement
Q91. Under ESRS G1-4, the disclosure of confirmed incidents of corruption or bribery is:
- A) Optional — only required if the company considers it material
- B) Mandatory — total number and nature of incidents must be disclosed ✓
- C) Required only for listed companies
- D) Required only if the incident resulted in a criminal conviction
Explanation: The Amended ESRS elevated confirmed corruption/bribery incidents to a mandatory datapoint under G1-4, regardless of whether individual incidents were considered material.
Q92. Under ESRS G1-3, "roles exposed to conduct risks" in procurement must be:
- A) Publicly listed on the company's website
- B) Identified and subject to targeted anti-corruption training ✓
- C) Rotated every six months to prevent corruption
- D) Excluded from supplier-facing activities
Explanation: G1-3 requires companies to identify which roles are exposed to corruption risk and ensure those role-holders receive appropriate training and oversight — procurement roles are typically high on this list.
Q93. Which of the following is an example of "trading in influence" as covered by the 2023 OECD Guidelines?
- A) A company legally lobbying government on tax policy
- B) A supplier paying a third party to use their political connections to secure a contract ✓
- C) A company donating to a registered political party
- D) A procurement manager recommending a supplier to a colleague
Explanation: Trading in influence involves using political connections or intermediaries to improperly obtain business advantages — covered by the 2023 OECD Guidelines' expanded definition of corruption.
Q94. The appropriate response when a key supplier offers a senior buyer hospitality immediately before a major tender decision is:
- A) Accept if the value is below the company's gift policy threshold
- B) Decline, declare the offer to compliance/legal, and document the interaction ✓
- C) Accept but disclose it informally to a manager
- D) Accept and recuse from the tender decision only if challenged
Explanation: Hospitality during an active tender creates an actual or perceived conflict of interest. Best practice — and OECD/G1-3 alignment — requires declining, formal declaration, and documentation regardless of value.
Q95. A whistleblower protection policy relevant to ESRS G1-3 must ensure:
- A) Whistleblowers are rewarded financially for every report they make
- B) Reports cannot be made anonymously to protect the company's reputation
- C) Individuals reporting concerns in good faith are protected from retaliation ✓
- D) All whistleblower reports are shared with the supplier named in the report
Explanation: Effective whistleblower protection must guarantee that good-faith reporters face no professional or personal retaliation — this is a requirement under both the EU Whistleblower Directive and ESRS G1-3.
Q96. ESRS G1-5 requires companies to disclose:
- A) All individual political donations made by employees
- B) Their approach to political engagement and lobbying activities ✓
- C) Internal voting records on political matters
- D) The political affiliations of board members
Explanation: G1-5 requires disclosure of the company's approach to political influence and lobbying — not individual employee donations, but the company's own political engagement strategy and activities.
Q97. The 2023 OECD Guidelines state that an enterprise should NOT:
- A) Disclose its lobbying positions publicly
- B) Engage with trade associations
- C) Require workers to support a political candidate or organisation ✓
- D) Make political contributions approved by senior management
Explanation: The 2023 OECD update explicitly added that enterprises should not require workers to support political candidates or organisations — protecting workers' political freedom.
Q98. "Conflict of interest" in procurement occurs when:
- A) Two suppliers bid for the same contract
- B) A procurement professional has a personal interest that could improperly influence a business decision ✓
- C) A supplier operates in a high-risk country
- D) A buying company uses multiple sourcing channels for the same category
Explanation: Conflicts of interest arise when personal relationships, financial interests, or other factors could improperly influence procurement decisions — they must be declared and managed, typically through recusal.
Q99. The EU Whistleblower Directive (2019/1937) requires companies above what employee threshold to have internal reporting channels?
- A) 50 employees
- B) 100 employees
- C) 250 employees ✓
- D) 500 employees
Explanation: The EU Whistleblower Directive requires companies with 50 or more employees to have internal reporting channels, but the thresholds for mandatory implementation timelines varied — companies with 250+ employees were in the first wave.
Q100. A "facilitation payment" is:
- A) A legitimate payment to expedite customs clearance
- B) A small unofficial payment to a public official to speed up a routine service — prohibited under most anti-corruption frameworks ✓
- C) A payment processing fee charged by banks
- D) A supplier advance payment to facilitate production
Explanation: Facilitation payments ("grease payments") to public officials to perform routine functions are prohibited under the OECD Anti-Bribery Convention, the UK Bribery Act, and most major anti-corruption frameworks — despite being common in some markets.
MODULE 3.4 — Integration & Governance
Q101. Ownership of supplier sustainability within a company is best placed:
- A) With the legal department only, as it is a compliance matter
- B) As a shared responsibility across procurement, ESG/sustainability, legal, and risk functions ✓
- C) With the marketing department as it affects brand reputation
- D) With individual buyers who manage supplier relationships
Explanation: Effective governance of supplier sustainability requires cross-functional ownership — procurement manages day-to-day supplier relationships, sustainability/ESG sets standards and reports, legal manages risk, and risk oversees the framework.
Q102. Board-level escalation of a supplier sustainability issue is warranted when:
- A) Any supplier misses a sustainability questionnaire deadline
- B) A severe human rights incident, systemic non-compliance, or material reputational risk is identified ✓
- C) A supplier's EcoVadis score drops by more than 5 points
- D) Any corrective action plan is opened
Explanation: Boards must be informed of material sustainability risks — severe incidents (e.g., forced labour found in supply chain) or systemic failures are examples where board-level awareness and decision-making is required.
Q103. The EU Taxonomy relevance to procurement sustainability means companies must disclose:
- A) Their suppliers' turnover figures
- B) The percentage of their CapEx and OpEx aligned with environmentally sustainable activities ✓
- C) Their suppliers' environmental certification status
- D) Procurement department headcount
Explanation: The EU Taxonomy requires companies to disclose the proportion of revenue, CapEx, and OpEx aligned with environmentally sustainable economic activities — procurement of goods and services directly affects CapEx and OpEx alignment.
Q104. A 30-day action plan at the end of a procurement sustainability training programme is designed to:
- A) Complete all required ESRS disclosures within 30 days
- B) Ensure each participant commits to specific, immediate actions to embed learning in their role ✓
- C) Audit all high-risk suppliers within 30 days
- D) Replace the need for ongoing quarterly refreshers
Explanation: Immediate post-training action planning converts learning into practice — specific, time-bound personal commitments ensure training has real-world impact rather than remaining theoretical.
Q105. The Amended ESRS (November 2025) is expected to become legally binding through:
- A) A European Parliament resolution
- B) A European Commission Delegated Act ✓
- C) A UN General Assembly declaration
- D) Individual member state legislation
Explanation: ESRS are adopted as Delegated Acts by the European Commission under the CSRD legal basis — the Amended ESRS will follow the same process, with the final Delegated Act expected by mid-2026.
FINAL EXAM BANK (Questions 106–120 — Additional questions for 40-question final exam draw)
Q106. The primary legal basis for CSRD is:
- A) The EU Green Deal regulation
- B) Directive (EU) 2022/2464 amending the Accounting Directive ✓
- C) The EU Taxonomy Regulation
- D) The Corporate Governance Directive
Q107. ESRS 2 General Disclosures applies to:
- A) Only environmental topics
- B) Only social topics
- C) All companies in scope, across all material sustainability matters ✓
- D) Only companies with more than 5,000 employees
Q108. The ILO Declaration on Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work was originally adopted in:
- A) 1976
- B) 1998 ✓
- C) 2011
- D) 2022
Q109. "Undue cost or effort" relief in the Amended ESRS allows companies to:
- A) Exclude any disclosure they find burdensome
- B) Apply more flexible reporting where data collection would be disproportionately expensive, particularly for value chain data ✓
- C) Delay all sustainability reporting by two years automatically
- D) Replace quantitative data with qualitative descriptions in all cases
Q110. The GHG Protocol defines Scope 3 emissions as:
- A) Direct emissions from owned sources
- B) Indirect emissions from purchased energy
- C) All other indirect emissions in a company's value chain, including supplier activities ✓
- D) Emissions from company-owned vehicles only
Q111. Under ESRS S1-13, gender pay gap disclosure is:
- A) Voluntary for all companies
- B) Mandatory once Own Workforce is assessed as material ✓
- C) Only required for companies with more than 1,000 employees
- D) Phased in until FY2030
Q112. The National Contact Points (NCPs) under the OECD Guidelines are:
- A) Corporate compliance officers within multinational companies
- B) Government-established bodies to promote the Guidelines and handle complaints ✓
- C) UN agencies monitoring OECD compliance
- D) Industry associations representing multinational enterprises
Q113. "Phase-in relief" in ESRS means:
- A) A permanent exemption from a disclosure requirement
- B) A time-limited permission to omit or delay certain disclosures while building reporting capability ✓
- C) Permission to use estimated data indefinitely
- D) A reduction in the external assurance requirement
Q114. Supplier sustainability performance data collected by the procurement team feeds directly into:
- A) The company's financial accounts
- B) ESRS G1-2 and S2 disclosures in the sustainability statement ✓
- C) The company's marketing and brand strategy only
- D) Annual employee appraisals
Q115. The principle of "fair presentation" introduced in the Amended ESRS means:
- A) Companies can choose which information to present based on what reflects them most favourably
- B) The sustainability statement must present a true and fair view of the company's sustainability performance, including limitations ✓
- C) Financial and sustainability statements must have identical formats
- D) All sustainability claims must be pre-approved by regulators
Q116. Training completion rates for procurement teams should be reported as part of ESRS G1-2 because:
- A) Training rates are a financial materiality indicator
- B) Training of the procurement team is a mandatory G1-2 datapoint requiring evidenceable disclosure ✓
- C) HR training metrics are required under ESRS S1
- D) Training rates are only relevant to ESRS E1 climate training
Q117. An escalation matrix in supplier sustainability governance defines:
- A) The price escalation formula for long-term supplier contracts
- B) Which sustainability issues require what level of management involvement and decision-making ✓
- C) The order in which suppliers are assessed during annual review
- D) The process for escalating supplier invoice disputes
Q118. The VSME (Voluntary SME Standard) under ESRS is relevant to procurement because:
- A) It replaces G1-2 for SME buyers
- B) SME suppliers can use it to structure their sustainability disclosures to respond to buyer questionnaires ✓
- C) It exempts SME suppliers from all sustainability requirements
- D) It is mandatory for all SMEs in the EU from FY2026
Q119. "Remediation" in the context of ESRS and UNGPs means:
- A) Environmental cleanup of contaminated sites only
- B) Restoring affected people or communities to the situation they would have been in had harm not occurred ✓
- C) Legal compensation paid to government regulators
- D) Internal disciplinary action against responsible employees
Q120. The most important outcome of completing this training programme is that participants are able to:
- A) Pass the final exam with a score of 100%
- B) Identify, assess, and manage supplier sustainability risks in line with ESRS G1-2 and international frameworks, contributing to compliant and credible sustainability disclosure ✓
- C) Become certified sustainability auditors
- D) Replace external audit with internal self-certification
End of Quiz Bank — 120 questions across 12 modules. [ECOWORLD] | ESRS G1-2 Procurement Sustainability Training | Version 1.0